I am building a new home with a rigid steel structure + steel roof/siding, and traditional 2x4 wood framing on inside, a.k.a. a "barndominium". Regarding termite prevention, applicable (?!) code appears to be this (year 2018; section language essentially unchanged from previous version year 2015):
R318.1Subterranean termite control methods.
My preference is a typical/standard treatment of all wood framing, especially those located on exterior sides, but my General Contractor/builder will certainly try to do the least cost approach, no matter what that means to the home, and the nature of contract is that I'll have little say in the matter as long as it conforms to applicable code.
But I am a bit confused as to just what is the necessary and sufficient approach in my specific case, code-wise, that my builder is likely to want to do (i.e. "get away with")? Hence this question...
The home is in Texas, USA, and outside any city limits/jurisdiction. LAHJ (local authority having jurisdiction is probably the county in which home is located. I have a phone call into them but they will likely not want to actually advise me on how to proceed. And I have had an independent home inspection done recently which raised this point, but as a matter of liability they don't suggest a specific course of action.
edit: apparently it needs clarification: the kernel of main question is given description of my home build and applicable code, what is the "least efforts" and/or "least cost" approach to be taken regarding termite protection.
Anyone deciding to respond, please don't get caught up with pedantics or unfounded assumptions or "I would never ask this so you shouldn't either" mindsets. Thanks.